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21 points

How would it be really translated?

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43 points

It sounds stupid, but the chatbot is actually right. The person saying the phrase would pick one based on how they view or present themselves. It’s not a disparagement to say that a non-binary individual has a gender with respect to Spanish grammatical structure, because quite literally everything does. Chairs are feminine, days are masculine, etc.

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24 points

I don’t know if this is the case for Spanish, but it is worth noting that grammatical gender and human gender don’t always line up when they are both present either. Like German’s Mädchen, meaning “girl” or “young woman”, is not a feminine word. If that sort of thing is common it might help enby people feel a little more comfortable with it, or at least I imagine it might since I’m not one

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10 points
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Well yes, but actually no.

The reason grammatic gender is called gender is because almost all nouns referring to men (boy, men, father, uncle…) are in one group and almost all nouns referring to women are in the other.

In German, Mädchen is not in the female group because -chen is a diminutive changing any noun’s group to neuter. The word Jungchen, from “Junge” meaning “(young) boy” exists as well and is also neuter.

Similarily, all plural nouns are in the female group. Just because grammar has some more quirks doesn’t mean grammatical gender doesn’t line up with actual gender.

The only exception in German I know of would be the word “Weib”, cognate to wife, translating to women, which is in the neuter group. Except this word is archaic and an insult nowadays. All other words referring to gendered people should be in their corresponding grammatical group.

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9 points

Funniest example I know is how vagina is masculine in French.

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7 points
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Linguistically, the term “grammatical gender” is really a historical mistake based on linguistics the discipline being born in Indo-European languages, (twice – first with the first Sanskrit grammar, then for serious with people noticing suspiciously many similarities between Sanskrit and Latin)

The new and more inclusive term is “noun classes”, e.g. Swahili has nine, e.g. “mtu” is person, class “animate/human singular”, then you have “utu”, “humanity”, from the same root but in the class for abstractions. All Indo-European languages have three, and in that context “female gender” is really “the noun class that the word ‘woman’ is part of”, same for “man” and “thing”. Girl is neuter in German because it’s a diminutive and all diminutives are neuter, “person” is female and “human” male because that’s how the language assigned them semi-randomly to classes (mostly through phonetics). Nouns constructed with infinitive+er (like baker, very similar formation rules as in English) are all male, feminists really don’t like that because that covers basically all professions… but it also makes all murderers male. Which doesn’t make all murderers male, same as me being a person doesn’t make me female. Grammatical /= personal gender.

This is all that you can point to a chair (male) and table (female) and have a good chance to be able to refer to them very efficiently, like “his leg is broken” and it being clear that you don’t mean the table: That wouldn’t make any sense as it’s female and you’d say “her leg is broken”.

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1 point

But that’s because all diminutives are neuter in German. Like das Mädchen is the diminutive of die Mäd (the girl) same with das Fraulein (the young woman) is the diminutive of die Frau (the woman). Mäd and Frau are feminine words

It’s also the same in Dutch. De meid (the girl) is gendered (Dutch doesn’t have a distinct article for masculine and feminine words anymore) and the diminutive het meisje (the little girl) is neuter.

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3 points

Isn’t that up to the person, they might not like either term ?

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1 point

At which point you’re free to use the feminine gender, because the word for “person” is a feminine noun.

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3 points

When referring to people usually the male form is used as the neutral form, so probably it’s the best form to use in this case. Some people are trying to reintroduce the latin neutral in romance languages but at least in Spanish and Portuguese it ends up sounding a lot with the male form.

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9 points

I’m not sure how common it is, but some nonbinary Spanish speakers use -e (latine, no binarie, etc) as a way to make Spanish gender neutral.

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9 points

Yeah and elle for gender neutral pronouns, however almost nobody accepts these “because it sounds weird”

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2 points

Yeah, but RAE is not happy with this solution. 😅 I think at some point they’ll come with their own proposal. For now I think that they emphasize non-gendered language instead of converting gendered words to non-gendered.

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3 points

The common thing would be to say: “soy una persona no binària” which means “I’m a non-binary person”.

But you can also say: “soy no binario” and that would also be correct.

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1 point
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For me it (chatgpt) says ‘no binaria’ ist the more common term, but no idea if that’s actually how it is

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3 points

No binario is masculine, because it ends in -o. To make it feminine, it is changed to no binaria, ending in -a. Therefore, no binaria is feminine.

There are neutral adjectives that end in something else, such as verde (green) or feliz (happy), but most adjectives do not have a neutral form.

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2 points
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I know, I can actually speak a bit of spanish myself haha.

But what do you do when you speak to a person who doesn’t identify as neither? How do you justify the use of either no binario or no binaria? You need a gender for that. And if you can’t figure out a gender there probably is a common or more agreed upon version or? I thought in this case more people might just use ‘no binaria’ for everyone.

Someone else mentioned ‘no binarie’ so I guess there’s another way out of this.

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1 point
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The times I’ve done a form and it asks for the gender, the option is “No binario”. Probably because gender is masculine in Spanish. You can say a person is “No binaria” because person itself is feminine.

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