Link to the original article:
They does apply to a specific entity since the discussion is overtly about America.
“They” changed the definition would mean the US government changed the definition and that is incorrect.
And now that I have explained 3rd grade English grammar to you regarding how pronouns work, I think we can stop here. You were not paying any attention to the subject at and kept losing the thread and then resorting to bs when this was pointed out.
“They” changed the definition would mean the US government changed the definition and that is incorrect.
Lol, if we are basing this on your assumption wouldn’t “they” mean the NBER?
And if they meant either, wouldn’t that still be correct given that the way they define a recession has adapted over time…again they made an extremely vague claim that did not include any specified descriptors, including time.
You were not paying any attention to the subject at and kept losing the thread and then resorting to bs when this was pointed out.
My original claim was that you were having a semantic dispute… That’s still my claim. Your issue is that you are stuck in an intentionality fallacy, where you have assumed the meaning of his statement and then rejected it for not being as specific as you would like.
now that I have explained 3rd grade English grammar
Lol, and you are still failing to understand that the specificity of a pronoun cannot be assumed by a person outside of a discourse. A person making a vague claim after reading an article is not specific enough to assume their meaning unless asked for further clarification.
OP has no idea who NBER was so “they” would be the government.
Do context clues exist in your first language?
OP has no idea who NBER was
And what evidence has led you to believe that… Oh yeah, another assumption!
Do context clues exist in your first language?
Lol, do logical fallacies exist in your first language?
