I guess this is going to depend on how you measure, right? What’s the methodology?
Wealth inequality, not income inequality. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_sovereign_states_by_wealth_inequality Sweden is 12, US is 25 or something.
For extra context, we have very high income taxes but none or very low wealth taxes for things like inheritance or owning stocks. Making it cheap to be rich and expensive to work.
I‘m really surprised. I always thought that wealth in the Nordish countries are quite equally distributed. Don’t you have a very flat income difference? How it comes?
I think its because most of the flattening of the income mainly touches the 99% because the income taxation isn’t that effective for owning people as they often get their money from owning stuff instead of earning a salary
Ah okay. So, Sweden managed to iron the glassfloor to the top. It isn’t possible for standard and even top performers to get to the 1% as they will always rely income with high taxation for a living. With this perspective my country (Germany) seems to be hard but it might be possible.
