In 2019, Texan Zackey Rahimi assaulted his girlfriend and fired his gun at a witness. He was put under a domestic violence restraining order, which he violated by possessing a firearm—an infraction under a 1994 federal laws—which he fired at people on multiple occasions. In his defense, Rahimi argued that the restraining order’s gun ban violated his 2nd Amendment right to bear arms.
The 5th Circuit Court of Appeals agreed: there was no 18th century law analogous enough to the statute barring Rahimi from possessing a gun, and therefore under Bruen, that statute must be unconstitutional.
Yo what the FUCK
I can see why Texas is the venue that Republicans go to when they wanna get some crazy shit into precedent on a federal level
The 18th century analogy standard was widely misused. Probably because SCOTUS didn’t make it clear and it’s a strange standard anyway. But yeah, the fifth circuit is a wild one
I could be wrong, but my assumption is that he’s in quite a lot of trouble and going to be in an extended limbo of custody and probation for quite a while going forward because of his other charges, whichever way the more minor issue of violating the protective order comes out (i.e. his lawyers are just mounting a vigorous defense as they’re supposed to do, and they found one of them that they can fight effectively through this weird little argument.)
But like, shooting at multiple people in the past is a felony unless it was judged to be self defense, right? I’m assuming it wasn’t self defense from the way it mentions him firing the gun at people. And if he’s under indictment for a felony charge or has been convicted of a felony he isn’t allowed to have firearms regardless of any other DV situation. What happened with the “firing at people” thing, did he get off?
If someone’s fundamental rights are violated in the process of enacting the law the trial conviction is considered invalid. So he’s kind of has been under shrodinger’s conviction for a federal crime, neither considered a vaild nor invalid convict until this box was opened.
But had he been charged with a felony for shooting at people before this incident even took place, he wouldn’t have had his rights anymore already.
Basically I mean if he shot at people and got charged with a felony and got his guns taken as a result,
and then beat his GF and got a DV charge banning him from possessing the guns he was already banned from owning,
and then he sues on the grounds of the DV conviction banning him from having guns,
even if he wins, he is still barred from having guns because of the previous felony banning him from having guns, which would be separate from the DV.
Also even if he’s awaiting trial on felony charges, he is still not legally allowed to possess a gun.
Unless you mean the police or prosecution violated his rights (like the right to counsel) during the original trial for shooting at people non-DV related, and so that case was dismissed, which is a possible explanation for why he got off without a felony for shooting at people. Could be, and that’s another reason to add to the list for “why they shouldn’t violate people’s rights during trial,” because if so that let this dickhead go free.
