Is it true to say that two numbers that are equal are also approximately equal?
“Approximately equal” is just a superset of “equal” that also includes values “acceptably close” (using whatever definition you set for acceptable).
Unless you say something like:
a ≈ b ∧ a ≠ b
which implies a is close to b but not exactly equal to b, it’s safe to presume that a ≈ b includes the possibility that a = b.
Can I get a citation on this? Because it doesn’t pass the sniff test for me. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Approximation
Sure! See ISO-80000-2
Here’s a link: https://cdn.standards.iteh.ai/samples/64973/329519100abd447ea0d49747258d1094/ISO-80000-2-2019.pdf
Yes, informally in the sense that the error between the two numbers is “arbitrarily small”. Sometimes in introductory real analysis courses you see an exercise like: “prove if x, y are real numbers such that x=y, then for any real epsilon > 0 we have |x - y| < epsilon.” Which is a more rigorous way to say roughly the same thing. Going back to informality, if you give any required degree of accuracy (epsilon), then the error between x and y (which are the same number), is less than your required degree of accuracy